Except for the fact paedophilia is a description of men who are sexually attracted to prepubescent children and which does not include 14 or 15 years olds , or 16 years olds, or 18 year olds, or 19, as has been suggested on this thread. A lower age of consent I would imagine, applying logic, would lead to increased incidents of paedophilia, although I have no evidence without looking into it further. Applying that same logic, why is paedophilia so prevalent in the UK compared to the rest of Europe with a higher age of consent.
The colloquial definition of paedophillia would include 14 years olds.
Do you think it is okay for a 60 year old man to have sex with a 14 year old girl?
Having sex with a 14 or 15 year old would be reported as paedophillia in the UK, it wouldn’t be in Gemrany. So yes, you would exect the total number of reports in the UK to be higher because of this.